Walk me through a DCF.
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Example answer
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A DCF values a company based on the present value of its future cash flows. I'd start by projecting the company's free cash flow for five to ten years. Then I discount those cash flows back to today using WACC. Next is the terminal value. You need it for the years after the forecast.
And that gives you what the company is worth, which you can compare to the share price.
What holds it back
Every step is named but none is explained. It never says which cash flow, how the terminal value is calculated, or how you get from the total to a share price.
A DCF values a company based on the present value of its future cash flows. I'd start by projecting the company's free cash flow for five to ten years. That's unlevered free cash flow, so I take EBIT, multiply by one minus the tax rate, add back depreciation and amortization, then subtract capital expenditures and the increase in net working capital. Then I discount those cash flows back to today using WACC. Next is the terminal value. I can use the perpetuity growth method, which assumes the final year's cash flow grows at a low rate forever, or apply an exit multiple to the final year's EBITDA. I discount the terminal value back to today as well, and adding it to the discounted cash flows gives me enterprise value. To get to equity value I subtract net debt. Dividing by diluted shares gives me an implied share price.
A DCF values a company based on the present value of its future cash flows. There are two parts, the cash flows in a forecast period and a terminal value for everything after it. I'd start by projecting the company's free cash flow for five to ten years. That's unlevered free cash flow, so I take EBIT, multiply by one minus the tax rate, add back depreciation and amortization, then subtract capital expenditures and the increase in net working capital. It's unlevered because it's the cash available to all investors, before any interest payments. Then I discount those cash flows back to today using WACC. WACC is the right rate because it blends the returns that both debt and equity investors require, which matches unlevered cash flows. Next is the terminal value. I can use the perpetuity growth method, which assumes the final year's cash flow grows at a low rate forever, or apply an exit multiple to the final year's EBITDA. I discount the terminal value back to today as well, and adding it to the discounted cash flows gives me enterprise value. To get to equity value I subtract net debt. I'd also subtract other claims like preferred stock and noncontrolling interest. Dividing by diluted shares gives me an implied share price. As a check, I'd look at how much of the value comes from the terminal value. It's often more than half, so I'd run sensitivities on the discount rate and the growth rate, and compare the result with trading comps.
What the interviewer listens for
- Can you define unlevered free cash flow line by line, starting from EBIT?
- Do you know both terminal value methods?
- Do you get from enterprise value to equity value to a share price?
- Do you know why WACC is the matching discount rate?
More finance technicals
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- Walk me through a basic LBO.
- What is WACC and how do you calculate it?
- What is the difference between enterprise value and equity value?
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